UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2025 [Answerkey and Solution]

Date of Exam: 25th May 2025
Paper: General Studies Paper 1 (GS Paper 1)

1. Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
Answer: (c) All the three

2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: (b) Only two
(Only Statement I and II are correct; III is incorrect as UAVs can have other power sources too.)

3. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
Answer: (c) Only three
(Graphite is usually used in anodes, not cathodes.)

4. Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?
Answer: (c) All the three

5. Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
Answer: (b) Only two
(Ethanol and Urea can be produced from coal gasification.)

6. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons

7. Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

• Statement I: Correct – Majorana-based chips are expected to revolutionize quantum computing.

• Statement II: Incorrect – There is no official confirmation that AWS introduced Majorana 1 chip.

• Statement III: Correct – Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

8. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

• All three are true: They are man-made, used for immunotherapy, and effective in viral treatments (e.g., Nipah).

9. Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

• I: Incorrect – Viruses can survive in ocean waters.

• II: Incorrect – Viruses can infect bacteria (called bacteriophages).

• III: Correct – Viruses can change host transcriptional activity.

10. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II:
Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III:
Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Activated Carbon Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• Both II and III explain I: Large surface area and synthesis from waste make it a good tool for pollution removal.

11. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II:
Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III:
Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• II (silica-bearing clay) and III (lime formation from limestone) both contribute to emissions explained in I.

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II:
The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III:
If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• Statement II: Correct – It’s a binding declaration.

• Statement III: Incorrect – Decarbonization improves resilience, doesn’t compromise it.

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II:
Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III:
As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• II (solar flares) doesn’t explain axis shift.

• III (polar melt → water redistribution) does relate to rotational axis shift.

14. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• Carbon markets and non-market strategies (II & III) are key parts of the global discussion (I).

15. Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

• Launched by ADB in coordination with Asia-Pacific countries.

16. With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (c) I, II and III

• All statements are correct. DAC has application in sequestration, food processing, and synthetic fuel.

17. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) II and III

Answer: (d) II and III

• Not a crustacean (so I is false).

• Native to Andhra Pradesh forests and is arboreal (tree-dwelling).

18. Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (c) II and III only
Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are higher than 0.5 tons.

• Statement II is correct.

• Statement III is correct: Energy (electricity and heat generation) is the biggest contributor.

19. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five

Correct Answer: (b) Only three
Explanation:

• Cassava – Correct

• Ginger – Correct

• Malabar spinach – Correct

• Mint – Incorrect (it is a herb, not shrub)

• Papaya – Incorrect (it is technically an herbaceous plant, not a woody shrub)

20. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rainforests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Correct Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: Oceans (via phytoplankton) contribute more oxygen than rainforests.

• Statement II is correct.

• Statement III is incorrect: Oxygen solubility in water is far lower than in atmospheric air.

 

21. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (c) Both I and II

22. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Correct Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation:

• Statements I, II, and IV were part of the program.

• III is incorrect — people were expected to surrender titles, not just retain and hide them.

23. The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was:

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Correct Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

24. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?

(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman

Correct Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

25. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of:

(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta

Correct Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

26. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola)
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Correct Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)
Explanation: Rajendra Chola I launched a naval expedition against Srivijaya in Southeast Asia.

27. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Correct Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation:

• Asmaka – Godavari (Correct)

• Kamboja – Vipas (Incorrect; Kamboja was in the north-west but Vipas is not typically associated)

• Avanti – Mahanadi (Incorrect; Avanti is linked with Narmada)

• Kosala – Sarayu (Correct)

So, actually only two may be correct (Answer should be b, not c as marked) unless Vipas is taken liberally.

28. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:

(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior
(c) Ujjain
(d) Lahore

Correct Answer: (b) Gwalior

29. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:

(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration

Correct Answer: (b) district-level administration

30. Consider the following statements with respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (c) Both I and II

31. With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Correct Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation:
Alternative Investment Funds include hedge funds and venture capital. Bonds and stocks are conventional investments.

32. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V

Correct Answer: (d) I, II and V
Explanation:
RBI does not manage pension funds or lend to private companies.

33. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

How many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
Directorate of Enforcement actually works under the Department of Revenue, not Ministry of Home Affairs.

34. Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (b) II only
Explanation:
It is SEBI, not RBI, that mandates listed companies to submit BRSR.

35. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II:
In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

36. Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation:
India has not all 30 critical minerals in adequate quantity; hence Statement II is incorrect.

41. Consider the following countries:

I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six

Correct Answer: (b) Only four
Explanation:
NATO members from the list:

• Bulgaria – Yes

• Croatia – Yes

• North Macedonia – Yes

• Sweden – Yes (joined in 2024)
  Non-members: Austria, Serbia

42. Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Correct Answer: (d) Only five
Explanation:
Andes pass through: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela, and partially Brazil
Paraguay is not in the Andes region.

43. Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
Only Lake Tanganyika lies on the Equator. The other two are located north and south of it, respectively.

44. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer: (c) All the three
Explanation:
All three are factually correct per agricultural reports from 2022–23.

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45. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Correct Answer: (c) I, II and III
Explanation:
All three are standard geological evidences for continental drift theory.

46. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II:
Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
Explanation:
Subtropical and temperate areas actually have more dry winds, not less — which explains the higher dust.

47. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II:
In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation:
Isotherms bend equatorward over land due to cooling, and poleward over ocean due to retained heat. Statement II explains the ocean’s warmth.

48. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock, whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II:
Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III:
Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
Chalk is porous = permeable; clay is almost impermeable = not porous. Both support Statement I.

49. Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Correct Answer: (c) I, II and III
Explanation:
All three are correct and describe the greenhouse effect and role of atmospheric insulation.

50. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low-producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Both statements align with the objectives of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission under the National Programme for Bovine Breeding.

51. Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all states.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Answer: (a) I and II only
Explanation: Intermediate Panchayats do not exist in all states (only those with population above 20 lakh). Minimum age is 21 years, not 30.

52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the sub-sector of tourism is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c) I and IV
Explanation: BIMSTEC was formed in 1997, not 1999. Nepal is not a founding member. India leads the tourism sector.

53. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Answer: (c) II, III and IV
Explanation: The Prime Minister chairs the jury. CJ of India and Leader of Opposition are members. President is not part of the jury.

54. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation.

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Which of the statements is/are correct?
Answer: (d) I and II only
Explanation: GAGAN is mainly for aviation but also supports other applications. Statement III is incorrect.

55. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit (2023) and Seoul Summit (2024).
II. Along with other countries, the US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c) Both I and II
Explanation: Both statements are correct as per recent international developments on AI governance.

56. Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer – 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism – 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust – 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence – 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation: The first three are valid. The fourth is not officially declared yet.

57. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (c) I and III
Explanation:

• Statement I is correct – Russia chaired the 16th BRICS Summit.

• Statement II is incorrect – Indonesia is not a BRICS member (new members include Egypt, Iran, Ethiopia, UAE, etc.).

• Statement III is correct – that was the theme.

58. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or of a State Legislature, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than 45 years of age.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b) II and III
Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect – Lokpal jurisdiction includes Indian public servants abroad.

• Statement II is correct – MPs and legislators are excluded.

• Statement III is correct – 45 is the minimum age.

• Statement IV is incorrect – Lokpal can investigate a sitting PM under certain conditions.

59. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b) II and III only
Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect – The event was held in Pune, not Delhi.

• Statements II and III are factually correct.

60. Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

• Consider the following statements:
  I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
  II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
  III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
  Which of the statements given above are correct?
  Answer: (d) I, II and III
  Explanation: All three are true as per Articles 93–96 of the Constitution and related parliamentary conventions.

• Consider the following statements:
  Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
  Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
  Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  Explanation: Rare earths like europium and terbium are used in screens due to their phosphorescent properties, which explains their application in TVs and monitors.

• Consider the following statements:
  I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘Future Ready’ railway system by 2028.
  II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
  III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
  Which of the statements given above are not correct?
  Answer: (b) II and III only
  Explanation: Kavach is developed indigenously by India, and it does not use RFID tags but works on GPS and radio communication.

• Consider the following space missions:
  I. Axiom-4
  II. SpaDEx
  III. Gaganyaan
  How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
  Answer: (c) All the three
  Explanation: All three missions involve microgravity environments: Axiom-4 is a private ISS mission, SpaDEx is focused on space docking experiments, and Gaganyaan is India’s crewed mission with microgravity research plans.

• With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:
  I. Dornier-228 – Maritime patrol aircraft
  II. IL-76 – Supersonic combat aircraft
  III. C-17 Globemaster III – Military transport aircraft
  How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  Answer: (b) Only two
  Explanation: IL-76 is a heavy-lift military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft.

• Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:
  Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
  Explanation: Cloud seeding involves use of silver iodide and sometimes potassium iodide to induce rainfall artificially.

• Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
  I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
  II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
  Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  Answer: (a) I only
  Explanation: The President’s pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review, but the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. Statement II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation: Statement I is partially incorrect—though the President decides, he/she does so based on the opinion of the Speaker or Chairman (not the Council of Ministers). Statement II is correct—‘political party’ was introduced via the 10th Schedule.

• Consider the following statements:
  Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
  Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
  Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
  Explanation: As per the MMDR Act, minor minerals are notified by the Centre, but regulated by State Governments within limits defined by the Centre.

• Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
  Answer: (a) The European Union
  Explanation: In July 2023, the European Union passed the Nature Restoration Law to restore degraded ecosystems and combat biodiversity loss.

71. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
    I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
    II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
    III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
    Answer: (a) I and II only
    Explanation:
    Revenue deficit = Expenditure – Receipts = ₹80,000 – ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crore
    Fiscal deficit = Borrowings = ₹10,000 crore
    Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest = ₹10,000 – ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crore
    So all three are correct. However, option (a) is marked, but correct answer should be: (d) I, II and III

72. India is one of the founding members of the International North–South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect:
    Answer: (d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan
    Explanation: INSTC connects India to Europe via Iran, the Caspian Sea, Azerbaijan, and Russia.

73. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
    Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
    Answer: (c) Both I and II
    Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect. The US produces more ethanol than Brazil.

• Statement II is correct. Corn (US), sugarcane (Brazil) are the key feedstocks.
  Correct answer: (b) II only

74. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
    I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
    II. The survival of animals including humans, will be affected as shedding of body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
    Answer: (b) II only
    Explanation: Wet-bulb temperature affects human survivability due to heat stress. Statement I is unrelated to wet-bulb temperature.

75. A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
    Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores
    Explanation:
    Gross primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
    = ₹50,000 – ₹1,500 = ₹48,500 crores

76 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect –

• Statement II is correct – Abhimanyu Mishra became GM at 12 years and 4 months.

• Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
  I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
  II. 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
  III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
  IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
  Answer: (d) I, II, III and IV
  Explanation: All four statements are correct based on the official report of the 15th Finance Commission.

• Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
  I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
  II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
  III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
  Answer: (c) I and III only
  Explanation: IBRD is part of the World Bank Group and does not work single-handedly (II is incorrect). I and III are correct.

• Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
  I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
  II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
  III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
  Answer: (d) I, II and III
  Explanation: All three are correct. NEFT is now available 24×7; RTGS has limited hours and charges apply differently.

• Consider the following countries:
  I. United Arab Emirates
  II. France
  III. Germany
  IV. Singapore
  V. Bangladesh
  How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
  Answer: (b) Only three
  Explanation: As of 2024, UPI is accepted in UAE, France, and Singapore for international merchant transactions.

• Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
  I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
  II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroots levels.
  III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
  Answer: (d) I, II and III
  Explanation: All three are correct according to the objectives outlined in the 2024 announcement of the scheme.

81. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
    I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
    II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
    III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    Answer: (c) I and III only
    Explanation:

• I is correct: Ordinances can amend laws including Central Acts.

• II is incorrect: Ordinances cannot abridge Fundamental Rights.

• III is correct: Ordinances can be made retrospective.

82. Consider the following pairs:
    I. Arunachal Pradesh – The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
    II. Nagaland – The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
    III. Tripura – Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    Answer: (b) Only two
    Explanation:

• I is correct: Itanagar is named after Ita Fort.

• II is correct: Nagaland was created by the 13th Constitutional Amendment.

• III is partially inaccurate as Tripura became a UT in 1956, but statehood was given in 1972 not as a direct outcome of the 1956 Reorganization Act. Hence, it may be considered incorrect in some answer keys.

83. With reference to India, consider the following:
    I. The Inter-State Council
    II. The National Security Council
    III. Zonal Councils
    How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
    Answer: (b) Only two
    Explanation:

• Only the Inter-State Council is constitutional (Art. 263).

• The National Security Council and Zonal Councils are statutory or executive bodies.

84. Consider the following statements:
    I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
    II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    Answer: (a) I only
    Explanation:

• I is correct: Article 163(2) provides for discretionary powers of the Governor.

• II is incorrect: The President acts only when the bill is reserved by the Governor under Article 200.

85. Consider the following pairs:
    Provision in the Constitution of India — Stated under
    I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State — The Directive Principles of the State Policy
    II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture — The Fundamental Duties
    III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories — The Fundamental Rights
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    Answer: (b) Only two
    Explanation:
    I – Correct (DPSP, Article 50)
    II – Correct (Fundamental Duties, Article 51A)
    III – Correct in principle, but word “factories” is not used in the Constitution—it’s “hazardous employment” under Article 24, hence answer keys sometimes treat it as ambiguous. But most likely two are fully correct.

86. Consider the following statements:
    With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule –
    I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
    II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    Answer: (b) II only
    Explanation:

• Statement I is incorrect: The State Government retains powers but administration is guided by the Governor.

• Statement II is correct as per the Fifth Schedule (Paragraph 2).

87. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
    Organization – Union Ministry
    I. The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    II. The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries
    III. The National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    Answer: (b) Only two
    Explanation:

• I is incorrect: The National Automotive Board works under Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce.

• II and III are correctly matched.

88. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
    I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
    II. Extent of the executive power of a State
    III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
    For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
    Answer: (a) I and II only
    Explanation:
    Per Article 368(2), ratification by half the states is required when it affects:

• State List or Union List

• Executive power of the States
  But not for Governor’s conditions of service.

89. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
    I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
    II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
    III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    Answer: (d) I, II and III
    Explanation:
    All three are correct as per Articles 361 and 194 of the Constitution.

90. Consider the following activities:
    I. Production of crude oil
    II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
    III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
    IV. Production of natural gas
    How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
    Answer: (c) Only three
    Explanation:
    PNGRB regulates marketing, sale, and distribution but not the production of crude oil and natural gas. So, statements II, III, and part of IV are covered.

91. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of:
    Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
    Explanation: Gandhiji made this remark in 1930 while defying the British Salt Law during the Civil Disobedience Movement.

92. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:
    Answer: (c) bronze
    Explanation: The ‘Dancing Girl’ of the Indus Valley Civilization is a bronze statue, showcasing the use of the lost-wax technique.

93. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
    Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
    Explanation: They volunteered to defend the accused in the Chauri Chaura case of 1922.

94. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
    Answer: (a) The Poona Pact
    Explanation: The Poona Pact of 1932, between Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, led Gandhiji to actively champion the cause of the Harijans.

95. Consider the following fruits:
    I. Papaya
    II. Pineapple
    III. Guava
    How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
    Answer: (b) Only two
    Explanation: The Portuguese introduced papaya and pineapple. Guava is believed to have come from Central America via other routes.

96. Consider the following countries:
    I. United Kingdom
    II. Denmark
    III. New Zealand
    IV. Australia
    V. Brazil
    How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
    Answer: (b) Only four
    Explanation:

• Australia: 3 standard zones + DST = more than 4 zones

• Brazil: 4 official time zones

• UK, Denmark, New Zealand: have only 1 zone each
  Correct answer: Only two countries have more than 4 zones
  So the correct answer should be: (d) Only two
  (Note: The marked answer ‘b’ seems incorrect based on factual validation)

97. Consider the following statements:
    I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
    II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    Answer: (c) Both I and II
    Explanation: Anadyr and Nome lie close geographically but across the International Date Line, which leads to different calendar days despite close proximity.

98. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?
    Answer: (a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
    Explanation: He launched the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 to promote rationalism, equality, and social reform in Tamil Nadu.

99. Consider the following pairs:
    Country – Resource-rich in
    I. Botswana – Diamond
    II. Chile – Lithium
    III. Indonesia – Nickel
    In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
    Answer: (c) All the three
    Explanation:

• Botswana is one of the top producers of diamonds.

• Chile is the world’s leading producer of lithium.

• Indonesia has rich nickel reserves.

100. Consider the following pairs:
     Region – Country
     I. Mallorca – Italy
     II. Normandy – Spain
     III. Sardinia – France
     In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
     Answer: (a) Only one
     Explanation:

• Mallorca is in Spain, not Italy.

• Normandy is in France, not Spain.

• Sardinia is in Italy, not France.
  None are correctly matched, so the correct answer is: (d) None
  (Note: The marked answer (a) is incorrect.)

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